Peter,
Thank you, Shai. But are these from pointed texts, or
transcriptions in languages which have vowels, or are the vowels reconstructed by the editors?
The text of the talmud is on the whole unvocalised; the forms I
mentioned appear as ryglwy, qwmwy, etc.
The vowels were added by me (although on basis of the sporadically
vocalised forms in the Geniza manuscripts); of course, I should have
mentioned that. Sorry.
...
I continue to hold that Greek -WI is highly unlikely to represent a final diphthong -oy, but much more probably two separate syllables -o-i or perhaps o-ay.
A triphthong oay! I didn't think of that. This is very interesting.
But if you take ELWI as hebrew, how do you expalin "shebaqtani"?I agree that this is Aramaic. That does not necessarily imply that the whole utterance is.
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