Hi James,
There must be more to your argument, which as it stands appears to be:
Aramaic was sometimes used by Jews in the Second Temple period.
Therefore "Aramaic had firmly supplanted the Hebrew language in everyday
use" in the first century.
It seems to me that three languages were in use in first century Judaea, so
demonstrating the use of one does not demonstrate its dominance over the
others. But it would be helpful to consider which kinds of evidence could
we appeal to in order to show which (if any) of the three was dominant for
everyday use.
Ken Penner
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