...Karl, it is possible that the *spoken* language of Babylonia before the Persian conquest was Aramaic rather than the Akkadian that was used in cuneiform tablets. But that does not make it Akkadian rather than Aramaic. Akkadian and Aramaic are very different languages, admittedly both Semitic but from different main branches of this family. Your question is a bit like asking if the old Norse spoken in modern England is different from English. Well, the language spoken in England is the same as English, but it is not old Norse!
But my question remains, is there any evidence that _spoken_ Akkadian and
Aramaic were different languages?
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