Gesenius (section 46d) says that "the first syllable of the sing. fem. and
plur. masc. are usually to be pronounced with shewa mobile" (and then gives
exceptions).
Juoun (section 49c [note 1]), however, says "The shewa is 'medium,'" which
would mean that the first syllable is closed even though it makes a following
bgdkft rafe.
I don't see any discussion in Waltke & O'Connor.
Can someone tell me what the latest credible scholarly opionion is?
Thanks!
[b-hebrew] shewa in imperative,
Bearpecs, 06/21/2005