Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
Date: Mon, 02 May 2005 00:18:35 -0500
----- Original Message -----
From: "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
>
> I don't think that the relationship between paal and piel is difficult at
> all, if only we accept an obvious thing about piel, the notion of intensity.
>
> Vadim Cherny
Vadim:
That’s just the problem—only very very rarely can intensity be recognized
from the context.
I suspect that the Piel, if it existed, would have had clear contextual clues
so that the reader would recognize it without vower points.
So what are the contextual clues that point to a Piel?
Karl W. Randolph.
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Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
, (continued)