To: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>, b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Cc:
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] karu or ka'ari (Ps 22:16) ?
Date: Tue, 26 Apr 2005 12:51:37 -0400
Peter Kirk wrote:
At the time of the DSS this would have been a normal spelling -
This raises a question that I have never heard satisfactorily answered-
to wit, when was spelling "normalized" in Hebrew texts? Or for that
matter, in Greek texts as well. I ask because I read a lot of stuff
from the Reformation and even as late as the mid 1500's German had no
"normalized" orthographical system. It stands to reason that if
orthography wasn't normalized when the printing press existed, it
wouldn't be before that time. So I ask- when was Hebrew spelling
"normailzed"? And bibliography would be helpful (so I can check up to
see if you are telling the truth). ;-)