My syntax is a little rusty. I have been reading through my Hebrew New Testament and I believe the version I am reading of John 1:1 has an example of both a classifying clause and an identifying clause. But I am not sure what the difference in meaning between the two is.What translation of the NT is this? It doesn't look to me like good biblical Hebrew - but of course this might not have been the translator's intention. For it appears that HU) is being used before the noun as some kind of demonstrative adjective, or as an additional article; whereas in biblical Hebrew HU) as a demonstrative adjective always follows the noun and almost always takes the article itself (see BDB sv HU) 7).
The passage in question reads:
W:HU) HADFBFR HAYFH )"CEL HF):ELOHIYM, W")ELOHIYM HFYFH HU) HADFBFR
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