...No, it was an attempt to understand C's posting. He or she was trying to distinguish two possible meanings of the Hebrew phrase by means of English near equivalents. This couldn't be done with only Hebrew words because that would be unhelpful circular argumentation: of course B- means B- but that doesn't help us! Perhaps technical grammatical terms would have been more precise, but not necessarily more understandable.
Presumably if C's "for six days" alternative actually means anything
different from "in six days" ...
This is an argument from an English text ...
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