Isn't $ a particle (deriving from third person pronouns?) independent of the
)$R conjunction (the latter derived from protosemitic noun meaning place,
and appearing in Akkadian meaning "where")?
In a message dated 2/1/2005 8:37:47 PM Eastern Standard Time,
kwrandolph AT email.com writes:
But in the poetic form, the )$R is shortened to a prefixed $-.
[b-hebrew] )$R and $ Was: "Shaf`el" in Hebrew?
, (continued)