Perhaps the Hebrew vorlage used by the LXX read HKN "be prepared" instead of
HCN( ? Could the 3-2nd century Sade be confused with Kaph? My assumption is
that the LXX's source was in Aramaic "square" script, rather than
paleo-Hebrew. Could the Sade/Kaph transcription have occurred when the text
was transcribed from paleo-Hebrew to "square" ?
Yigal
----- Original Message -----
From: "Dave Washburn" <dwashbur AT nyx.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, February 06, 2005 8:04 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Micah 6:8
> I'm wondering about the word HCN( in this verse. It's a hapax; the
nearest
> cousin is a passive in Proverbs that seems to speak of humility. But if
the
> word's meaning is clearly established as "humbly" or "in humility" or
> something like that, why did the LXX translate it hETOIMON EINAI, "be
> ready"??? The few commentaries etc. that I have are no help, they just
> assume the "standard" rendering and move on. I think it was Moffatt who
> rendered it "in fellowship," and I have no idea where that came from. Any
> thoughts?
>
> --
> Dave Washburn
>http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
> "No good. Hit on head." -Gronk
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