However, I believe that the ancients were very
sensitive to this syntactical feature, and I suspect it is at least partly
responsible for the likes of Rashi who interpreted Pro 5:16 as expressing
the hope that one's disciples would increase.
In fact, ancient syntax was so strict as to introduce residual difference in
verb and noun accent.
But I don't see how that point justifies the translation "let." It seems to
me that the implied word is "when":
Drink water of your own cistern (adhere to your religion)
[when] your springs will be dispersed abroad
let them be only your own (don't share your wisdom with Gentiles)
Vadim Cherny
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