On Wed, 22 Dec 2004 12:53:57 -0500 Jim West <jwest AT highland.net> writes:
> At 01:45 PM 12/22/2004, you wrote:
>
> >Yes, this is precisely as I said.
> >
> >george
> >gfsomsel
> >___________
>
> Now make up your mind. Are you using paraphrase as Peter is or as
> the
> dictionary is- because you seem to be changing your mind. A
> paraphrase is
> taking words and simplifying them for a wider audience- which is
> what the
> NWT does. It is not a translation- as I have already said. It is a
>
> paraphrase. A translation renders, as closely as possible, words
> from one
> language into another. The American Standard Version is a
> translation; the
> NIV is a paraphrase, as are most modern renderings. Why? because
> their
> interest is not in translating words- but "ideas" and hence they
> paraphrase. The KJV is a paraphrase as well, seeing as how it simply
>
> paraphrased Wycliffe and other english versions (while of course
> pretending
> to consult the originals). If you want to translate hebrew into
> english
> that's one thing. Something totally separate is taking what you
> think the
> words mean and rendering them in another way in order to simplify
> for the
> unwashed masses.
>
> There is, in sum, a great difference between translating,
> translations; paraphrasing, and paraphrases.
>
> Jim
> ++++++++++++++++++++
> Jim West, ThD
> Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies
> Quartz Hill School of Theology
__________________
Apparently you fail to appreciate the significance of the definition to
which you pointed. It said that a paraphrase was a restatement in other
words. This implies that the restatement is in the same language. A
translation involves two different languages.