...But surely there are places where the Hebrew Bible simply doesn't make sense if all verb forms are read as if they were modern Hebrew tenses? Aren't there? Can anyone suggest any examples? Perhaps 1 Samuel 1:5: is this understood as "And to Hannah he will give..."?
I'm curious what are the feelings of Modern Hebrew speakers on this board about this issue. I have a vague impression that they have been relatively quiet on this thorny grammatical problem on this board, maybe because Modern Hebrew speakers don't experience any tension or cognitive dissonance when following the tenses (if that's what it is) in the text.
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