Hallo Members of the board,Weingreen is almost but not completely correct. From a search of the Westminster Hebrew Morphology, not the latest version, I found just 9 cases in the Hebrew Bible of an object suffix on a nifal, hophal or hithpael finite verb (none for pual). I restricted the search to finite verbs ("perfect", "imperfect", vav consecutive and imperative). Here are the results of my search of the raw database:
Please could someone clear up a minor confusion for me, OR a mistake on my
part!
Weingreen (Oxford Hebrew Grammar) writes: "It will be understood that ONLY
the active verbs can take suffixes, niphal, pual, hophal and hitpael are
passives/reflexives and cannot govern an object..." he then proceeds to make
ONLY ONE exception (an infinitive construct, 'his being burned).
I read then prov 2:22 and discover a NIPHAL with a suffix. i then proceed
to check in Shoshan's concordance and lo and behold -- loads more niphals
with suffixes. gesenius also mentions prov 2:22 as being a passive
consttuction sentence.
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