What about Poti-phera, the priest of On, whose daughter Joseph married? It
is obviously the same name.
> > As it happens, such a name was not used in Egypt until the latter
> >part of the Late Period of Egyptian history (1070-378 BCE).
> HH: First, you are forming the name in Egyptian
on the basis of the Hebrew.
Why blame me? The consensus is that the name is "P'di-Pre", going by the
Petepres of the Septuagint.
So there is some room > for error there, isn't there? Second, it would be
hard for me to say that a name had not been used
in the United States for a two hundred year
period. So to say that a name that appeared in
Egypt at a late date could not have been used at
any time prior to that, a period of thousands of
years, seems a stretch.
Have you studied Egyptian prosopographia? I have. Until you do, just trust
me. Any Egyptologist would tell you the same.
Fine with me. Believe as you like. I say the names are one and the same. But how does one being Poti-phera and the other something else make any
difference to what I said about the name not being in vogue until the Late Period?
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