On Sat, 17 Jul 2004 15:48:42 -0500 "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
writes:
> Are you sure )XD is the subject of YPLW, or of YQYM? I read the verse
> as follows, For if they fall (plural subject referring back to the
> previous verse), the one will cause his associate to rise, a
> reading further strengthened by the fact that fall in the second
> half of the verse is singular with a singular subject.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>
>
> > Verse 9 says that two are better than one because they will get a
> better
> > recompense for their work. Then verse 10 says, if one falls the
> other can
> > lift him up. But "falls" is plural, YIP.OLU., yet it's paired
> with the
> > subject HF)EXAD. Any thoughts on why on earth this verb is in
> plural?
> >
> > --
> > Dave Washburn
> > http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
> > Insert clever epigram here...or not
> --
> _______________________________________________
I think Karl and I would agree here. Ha)eXfD is the subject of YfQiYM
and is part of the apodosis. "If they fall, the one will lift up his
companion . . ."