This has somewhat puzzled me. Why would one wish to place the
composition of Job at such an early date (assuming for the moment the
reality of the Exodus)? Even such conservatives as Keil & Delitzsch
thought the work was a product of the exilic period as a M$L LY&R)L. Is
this simply a general resistance which is to be met with in all cases? No JEDP but Moses. No Maccabean apoclalyptist but Daniel. No wisdom
writer of Job during the Exile but Moses? What is the basis for wanting
to retroject this back to the time of the origins of Israel? Surely it
reflects a patriarchal scene, but this does not necessitate that it be
composed early.
gfsomsel
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