> >The translation of "coastland" is perfectly reasonable. However, can we
> >disregard the established meaning of the word and attach it the sense,
which
> >we think suits it better? This approach can lead as far away.
>
> HH: "Coastland" is a well-established meaning for the word.
Not in the conventional Hebrew dictionaries
>
> >Besides, the Tanakhic authors had pretty good grasp on geography. They
> >probably could distinguish between an island and a coastland, even more
so
> >since a large part of their country was a coastland or very close to it.
>
> HH: Yes, but if the Hebrew word could emphasize land that is in
> contact with water, then the distinction between island and coastland
> would be immaterial.
Conjecture, again. If you like conjectures, I'll venture another one: why im
is not jackal? Isaiah calls his enemies dogs, so why not jackals?