I appreciate reading the views on this word, but can anyone tell me why it
is pointed in a manner that is inconsistent with practically all participle
conjugations. ie, the two 'segols'.
Chris:
You seem to be labouring under a misapprehension about "practically all
participle conjugations". Just what, I wonder, do you think they are?
Let me quote from Lambdin -- as early as Lesson 4, he writes:
>>We shall begin our study of the Hebrew verb with the participal form
mentioned above " [ note: "begin" <g> ]
After giving the masc. and fem. , sing. and plural forms he continues:
>> the first vowel is unchangeably long: the vowel of the second syllable
is 'tsere' and therefore changeable. Note the feminine singular form with
-et and a corresponding change in the vowel of the final stem syllable; the
form with [ showing a shewa under the first syllable and a qamets under the
final syllable ] is also found, but less frequently. <<
Regards
Maurice
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros AT iol.ie