Dear Peter,
In order to have an intelligent exchange, please answer the question I posed to Vadim: If you use a modern linguistic approach, how can you know whether the WAYYIQTOL of )MR in Gen 1:3 has past reference because past tense is a *semantic* part of the form or whether the past reference is *pragmatic*?
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Also, please address my Phoenician examples (and similar examples from the Amarna letters) of infinitive absolutes functioning as finite verbs with past reference. Do they represent past tense ("grammaticalized location in time"), or is their past reference just pragmatic?
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