Perhaps anyone would care to discuss the word "pierced" in Isaiah 53?Return-Path: <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
Let's talk about the difference between halal, mehulal and meholal, and perhaps between "killed" and "pierced."
Pure grammar, no ideology.
Any takers?
From peterkirk AT qaya.org Wed May 19 15:14:34 2004
Dear Rolf,Well, if (as you seem to suggest) a later writer added to the book of Jeremiah words which purported to be Jeremiah's predictions of the fall of Babylon, he or she was very incompetent if he or she used for these predictions a verb form with a past meaning! These past verb forms, if they could not be understood as a prophetic perfect, would have been a dead giveaway that these purported predictions were written after the event.
I don't agree that Jeremiah 50 speaks about a future event.
That katav is used in fact demonstrates that Jer. 50 is about
a past event not about a future event.
Now you assume that it is about a future event because you
say that Jeremiah lived in the time of Zedekiah and that
the fall of Babylon didn't occur until the time of Cyrus.
I don't assume this however. I assume that a later
writer added to the book of Jeremiah and wrote about a past event.
You switch the meanings of the verbs around to conform to
your hypothesis that these are all the exact words of the prophet who gives his name to the book.
Liz Fried
Ann Arbor
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