Dear Rolf,
Perhaps I missed something...
Both verbs in 52:14 are in the past, clear and simple. Why future?
Best regards,
Vadim
"52:14 puts
the suffering in the *past*"? I note that the LXX has future verbs in
this verse, one translates the Hebrew QATAL and the other translates
a Hebrew substantive. I take v. 14 as simple future, just as does the
LXX. Why should I not?
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