It is true that several modern translations translate many occurrences of QATAL with future reference with simple future, but in other instances the same translations translate differently. A good example is the passage under discussion, Isaiah 53; but please add 52: 13-15 as well. Many translations (perhaps most) render 52:13,15 with future tense, and this shows that the servant is a future person (or group - not to exclude Jewish thinking). On this basis I wonder why the verses of chapter 53 is not rendered by future tense as well, because it is the same servant that is mentioned in that chapter. Please tell me why? Another example is the one I mentioned, Jeremiah 50,51. True many new translations use future to a great extent in these chapters, but they are far from being consistent. If you look at the WAYYIQTOLs and the QATALs in this two chapters, you can see the inconsistencies.
Best regards
Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo
Dear Rolf,_______________________________________________
Perhaps you should give us a passage whose translation you don't like, and we can look at it. Many English translations render prophetic perfect verbs with English futures, so I am not sure what you are criticizing.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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