Thanks, Peter:
----- Original Message -----
From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
On 12/02/2004 15:36, Karl Randolph wrote:
...We can't know exactly how the ancient Hebrews thought. But we can study how various present-day peoples think, including those who have had little exposure to western culture, and some whose general worldview is probably quite similar to that of the ancient Hebrews. Some people do study such things in depth, for example Ron Moe of SIL who is working on lexicography of Bantu languages (see some more about this at http://groups.yahoo.com/group/lexicographylist/). It is reasonable to suppose (at least on the assumption that there has been no fundamental and worlwide change in human nature over the last 3000 years or so) that how the ancient Hebrews thought, on most semantic issues (leaving aside for the moment anything specifically religious), is in general terms within the range of ways which different contemporary peoples think.
Is this the way ancient Hebrews thought? Or are we imposing our modern way of
thinking on the ancient Hebrews?
That?s just the problem: did the ancient Hebrews think according to the
catagories used by present primitive peoples, or did they use different
thought patterns? Is not one of the reasons that primitive peoples are
primitive is their thought patterns? Were the ancient Hebrew primitive in the
same way? I don?t think so.
One problem to making a definitive statement concerning ancient Hebrew
thought is the destruction of Hebrew records when the temple burned under
Titus. At least under Nebuchadnezzar, the picture is that the burning of the
temple was done according to a preplanned action, so it was emptied of its
treasures before being torched. Not so under Titus. Under Titus, the temple
burned while the fighting was still raging around it, and most of its
treasures and written records burned up with it. The main document that we
have left is Tanakh, and it indicates that ancient Hebrews did not follow the
thought patterns used by modern ?primitive? (and not so primitive) peoples.
Which ?primitive? people does not use Aristotelean thought methodology? Just
because he has different categories does not mean that he used a different
thought process to arrive at his categories, does it?
2) Where a lexeme has more than one meaning, there is usually a discernibleYou are in danger here of the etymological fallacy because you are losing sight of language change. Suppose that 100 years in the future light bulbs are no longer even vaguely pear-shaped, and for some reason I cannot fathom the German word Birne is no longer used for the fruit, but only for light bulbs. Only specialists would understand the link between the word Birne and its original meaning as a fruit.
connection, for example, Birne in German means both light bulb and pear, the
connection being that the early light bulbs had a pear like shape.
Are there any examples of a lexeme losing its original meaning and taking on
another in Biblical Hebrew? I can?t think of any.
That?s why I said ?usually?. There are a few lexemes in Biblical Hebrew where
I question whether or not there is a etymological connection between it and
another lexeme, but I don?t know. Therefore, a question mark.
Is not our view of language shifts tempered by our modern experience? ...
Therefore, when I look at Tanakh, most of which was written between the
Exodus and Galut Babel (a period of roughly 800 years) when the people lived
largely in linguistic and cultural isolation, is it wrong to expect little to
no linguistic change during that period?
... as folk etymologies they do tell us quite a lot about how the Hebrews thought about words.
In this we ought to be careful. The stated reason for a name may not be what
the name actually means. ...
...
3) Where a lexeme has a narrow and specific meaning, it often is eitherI would agree that comparison with synonyms is useful, especially when used in poetic parallelism. But I would be careful about this subset principle, which is by no means universal.
partially or wholly a subset of another lexeme. Therefore, one way to learn a
lexeme is to compare it to its synonyms.
Few of the lexemes that I mention are used in parallelisms in Hebrew poetry.
Most of the synonyms that I compare are from those where I noticed a
similarity of meaning. There are many times that I spent hours contrasting
the usages of one synonym with another, often where neither was used in
poetry.
...
It is precisely Aristotelean categories that I recognize as being
pre-scientific.
While my major back in college was languages, I studied an inordinant number
of science courses: calculus, organic chemistry, genetics among several other
upper level undergraduate science courses. What I noticed is that the
scientific method, at least that connected with biology (excepting
evolution), chemestry and other ?hard? sciences, was based on function more
than form, action than state. For example, while the ancients developed
algebra and geometre, tools sufficient to measure a static universe, the
Calculus was developed to encompass action within a mathematical formula.
It?s not a coincidence that modern science had its birth in northern Europe
after the Reformation: it was Luther who introduced a thought method that
looked at an active, not static universe, to be analysed through function,
not form (making Luther the grandfather of modern science). Supposedly, that
thought method was based on a rejection of Aristotelean categories and a
utilization of thought patte
rns drawn from Tanakh.
Similarly, when I analyse a Hebrew lexeme, my first thought is: what action
is implicit in this lexeme, what is its function? (Yes, in more than one way
I am a student of the Reformation.)
So which is the correct way to understand Biblical Hebrew? Through
Aristotelean categories based on form, or Reformation understanding based on
function?
...
Is it possible to write a dictionary without using one?s own categories? If
not, which are the best to use?
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