On Tue, 2004-01-27 at 08:08, Peter Kirk wrote:
> On 27/01/2004 06:27, Dave Washburn wrote:
>
> > ...
> >
> >I wonder if the ancient Hebrews used it as a catch-all term, since they
> >probably didn't have the finely-tuned categories (such as phylum) that
> >we have today, and perhaps that's what Gesenius' comment reflects? I
> >don't know what he had in mind, but it does seem likely that BH didn't
> >split categorical hairs the way we do...
> >
> >
> >
> Hebrew speakers didn't split categorical hairs, but Gesenius usually
> does, so his apparent equating of sedge and seaweed suggests to me
> either an error or a mistranslation from German to English.
OK, I misunderstood. Thanks for the clarification.
> >Perhaps "water plants" is a good rendering for it in most references? ...
> >
>
> Agreed, but we need to be a bit more specific than "the sea of water
> plants". Since both the Gulf of Suez and the Gulf of Aqaba are counted
> today as parts of the Red Sea, and the Bitter Lakes were probably
> connected to the Gulf of Suez at the time, I suggest keeping to the
> traditional translation "Red Sea".