Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] shewa following conjunctive waw
Date: Sun, 25 Jan 2004 20:39:59 EST
In a message dated 1/25/2004 4:33:02 PM Eastern Standard Time,
Bearpecs AT aol.com writes:
GHK (104e): "Before words with simple Shewa under the first consonant
(except in the cases under f), the Waw becomes the vowel u"
Weingreen (_A Practical Grammar for Classsical Hebrew_, p.40): "When the
conjunction is prefixed to a word whose first letter has a shewa, as shemu'el
[Heb] 'Samuel' then, since the word cannot begin with two shewas (as
weshemu'el
[Heb]) the waw [Heb] takes the form shuruq [Heb] -- ushemu'el [Heb] 'and
Samuel'."
Neither of these grammars state so explicitly, so I need to ask to be sure:
Does the shewa under the second letter (which had been the first before the
conjunction was added) always remain vocal? I.e. is it true to say that a
shewa
under the second letter after waw conjunctive is always vocal?
________
That's clearly the implication. It it were to change, the rule would not
then be applicable. Do note, however, the exception noted in the following
paragraph of Gesenius that it will