On 9/22/03 8:06 AM, "Pastor Mark Eddy" <markeddy AT adams.net> wrote:YOWM is certainly regularly used adverbially without any preposition. There are a lot of examples in BDB sense 7, pp.399-400. See especially sense 7e (1) (abridged here):
What is the subject of the verbs AMaR and YHaWeH (yod-chet-waw-heh) in Psalm
19:3? Is one YOM telling something to another YOM, and one LaYLaH revealing
something to another (as in NASB)? Or is HaRaQiYa' of verse 2 the subject of
the verbs in verse 3, with the time references being adverbial (as the NIV
seems to read it)? And how do we know? All the nouns are masculine singular,
so they agree with the masculine singular verbs.
Returning to Pastor Eddy's question:
Take a look at mywM lywM in the following:
Psa. 96:2 #yrw lyhwh brkw #mw b#rw mywM lywM y#w(tw
Esth. 3:7 bxd# hr)#wN hw) xd# nysN b#nt #tyM (#rh lmlK )x#wrw# hpyl pwr hw)
hgwrl lpny hmN mywM lywM wmxd# lxd# #nyM (#r hw) xd# )dr s
Looks like mywM lywM is adverbial does it not?
Now could ywM lywM in Psa. 19:3 be another way of encoding mywM lywM ?
Psa. 19:3 ywM lywM yby( )mr wlylh llylh yxwh d(t
I suspect that it is just that, but I am just a Hellenist so my opinion
doesn't have any weight.
greetings,
Clay Bartholomew
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