Can anyone cite any references to material taking a position on how much
influence Aramaic had on either Jeremiah's Hebrew or the common Hebrew of
that
period? I'm aware of Jer. 10:11 and the variant verbal forms elsewhere in
Jeremiah that look ancient but (as explained by Kutscher) are Aramaicisms.
Thanks.
--
(Tom) Ben Spackman
"In theory, there is no difference between theory and practice. But,
in practice, there is."
- Jan L.A. van de Snepscheut
[b-hebrew] "Aramaicized" Jeremiah?,
Ben Spackman, 03/14/2003