Dear All,
Is P (g) still considered to be post-exilic?
and if so, what is that based on?
(al regel ehad, please).
I'm reviewing a book in which the author
bases his entire argument for his history of
the priesthood on the assumption that P is post-exilic.
I'm wondering how firm a basis this is, and if these
arguments are not circular. Does not the assumption that P
is post-Exilic rest on our (or, to be more precise, on Wellhausen' s)
assumptions about the history of the priesthood?
Thanks,
Liz