On Wednesday 12 February 2003 13:42, furuli AT online.no wrote:
Dear Michael,
Nobody would deny that some persons of the Qumran people, or perhaps
all of them used a subatitute for the tetragrammaton. But this does
not prove that other groups did the same in B.C.E.
Actually, since it has long been established that many if not most of the
scrolls were not produced at Qumran but were brought in from other places, it
does strongly suggest that the practice was quite widespread.
The words you quote from Wurthwein are not found in my 1979-edition
of his work. If you quote correctly, this is a blatant example of a
misleading statement in a book by a fine scholar. Or rather, before
it is verified that Wurthwein himself wrote these words, I am
inclined to think that a misinformed translator or editor added the
words.
Rolf,
In the 1979 edition, see page 146. Michael's 1995 edition is a revision and
hence the page numbers are different. The statement in question is opposite
the photo of the Habakkuk commentary, which in "our" edition (I also have the
1979) is on p. 147. And I checked the photographic edition of the Isaiah
scroll, and Wurthwein is right about 3:17. It does read `adonai. The scribe
has put dots (indicating erasure) under the letters of `adonai and written
YHWH above the line. I haven't checked all of the references about the
converse, but I have no doubt they're accurate: 1QIsa reads YHWH for `adonai
in those places. What does this tell us? It tells us that the scribe was
reading along and copying his exemplar, when he came to YHWH. He pronounced
it `adonai in his mind and just automatically wrote it that way, then
realized what he had done and corrected it to YHWH. In the other places, he
saw `adonai and his mind substituted YHWH. This combination of factors
indicates that YHWH was vocalized as `adonai by this scribe. And it's really
doubtful that this was an isolated practice.
Regarding your repeated statement that the DSS substitute El rather than
`adonai, Wurthwein addresses that as well, on the same page: "In the text of
the commentary itself [the Habakkuk commentary] the tetragrammaton is avoided
and 'el is used in its place." The pHab seems to be unusual among the DSS in
this regard, especially in light of the evidence from the Isaiah scroll. So
it's a bit of an overstatement, at the very least, to say that this was the
most common practice among the DSS.
> >I have not studied very much of the DSS so I hope someone will
> >correct me if I am giving misleading information. The question was
>raised whether or not there is any preChristian evidence that> >On the Papyrus Fouad Wurthein comments, "Thus, the tetragrammaton
>Hebrews replaced the tetragrammaton with Lord- either in Hebrew or
>Greek. I have in front of me a couple of pages copied from Ernst
>Wurthein, The Text of the Old Testament, Grand Rapids: W. B.
>Eerdmans Publishing Company, 1995.
>Commenting on the Habakkuk Commentary, he says, "In the period of
>these manuscripts it is evident that 'adonai was read for the
>tetragrammaton because the first Isaiah scroll, for example, reads
>)DNY where M [can't reproduce the symbol he uses] has YHWH (3:17),
>and conversely (6:11; 7:14; 9:7; 21:16; 28:2." (page 158).
>appears to have been an archaizing and hebraizing revision of the> >earlier translation kurios." (page 29).
>Sincerly Yours,> >Michael Abernathy
I do not take issue with Wurthwein's interpretation of the Isaiah scroll, particularly not when i see his assumptions. But I take issue of the words of his book which flatly state "Thus, the tetragrammaton
>appears to have been an archaizing and hebraizing revision of the earlier translation kurios." This is a fine example that indicates that we should not trust the authorities.
From furuli AT online.no Thu Feb 13 03:57:44 2003Return-Path: <furuli AT online.no>
>
That is exactly my point, the group at Qumran used a substitute for
YHWH - not )DNY but )L. So this could not be the antecedent of the
later Masoretic pointing of YHWH with the vowels of )DNY, nor a use
of KURIOS for YHWH in the NT.
So, you agree that there is a tendency to substitute the Name. That is the
main issue, the substitute could have differed in groups, regionally etc.
But it also could have differed depending on the context: commentary on a
text, or the reading of a text (cf. Yigal's argument). So, what you have
demonstrated is that there was a tendency to substitute. Only, the
substitute in biblical texts and liturgical contexts is not known.
>> Masoretes did not substitute YHWH with )Adonai.
I would also like to point to an example which indicates that YHWH
was *not* pronounced as KURIOS by the Greek translator of 8HevXIIgr.
In Micah 1:2 the Hebrew text has )DNY YHWH, and YHWH as expected is
pointed by the Masoretes as )LHYM. the reason is of course that the
readers should not read )DNY )DNY. However in the Greek text of the
mentioned manuscript we find KURIOS + the tetragrammaton in old
Hebrew characters. This suggests that the tetragrammaton was *not*
pronounced by KURIOS; otherwise one would read KURIOS KURIOS (See E.
Tov "The Greek Minor prophets from Nahal Hever, p. 85.) The
tetragrammaton also occurs with KURIOS in Micah 4:4 and 5.3 and Jonah
2:2. However, in Nahum 1:9 we find QEOS instead of the
tetragrammaton, which does not suggest substitution but rather
textual variation.
This is absolutely not an indication as you suggest. It illustrates the
Ketib/Qere of MT, but now with regard to the Greek text. If Kurios is found
before YHWH, you have to read THEOS? Otherwise the MT is the prove that the
>
> You must leave out the Masoretes, who worked 700-1000 years later,
> from the discussion.
Why? It illustrates the point that in case you have the combination of
substitute followed by the to-be-substituted-name [Adonai followed by YHWH;
Kurios by YHWH), you have to look for another substitute. But okay, no
Masoretes: You suggest that in Qumran the substitute was/might have been
)ELOHIM, what happened if they found YHWH )ELOHIM? In the line of your
argueing above, this is the proof they did not substitute YHWH by )ELOHIM!
E. Tov draws the same conclusion as I do
regarding Mica 1.2, that the manuscript probably distinguished
between the tetragrammaton and )DNY. I think it can mislead some to
use the technical term Ketib/Qere in connection with Qumran. There is
nothing like the Masoretic Ketib/Qere in Qumran, but different
"families" of manuscripts existed side by side.
I agree Ketib/Qere is somewhat misleading, I will use "substitute" for the
Qere.
I do not see any reason to read QEOS instead of YHWH. If you don't> see no reason why they should not read KURIOS, and then pronounce
presume that the Greek writers had stopped pronouncing the name, I
YHWH.
Two points:
1. Supposing that the text from Nahal Hever has some relationship with
Qumran, you just have argued that in Qumran they did substitute YHWH by
)ELOHIM. As far as I am aware, THEOS is the Greek word for the Hebr.
)ELOHIM. So, my argument is completely in line with your argument.
2. The question was whether your example demonstrates they did not use
KURIOS as a substitute. My answer is that your example does not demonstrate
it. I did not argue that they did substitute, but I do not exclude it and I
gave you some good arguments for it. So, where you try to prove they did not
substitute, I just say you did not prove it.
I do have my doubts with regard to the use of the NT in this discussion,
unless the NT would use the tetragrammaton throughout with vocalisation.
Yet, a few points:
<<SNIP>>
The only real evidence of a substitution in B.C.E. comes from Qumran.
The basic arguments for its non-use in the NT, have been shown to be
unfounded. So again, when Jesus read from Isaiah where YHWH is found
(Luke 4:18), why in the world should he refrain from pronouncing it?
The only thing we have as evidence here, is a Greek text, which reads
KURIOS. You have no text, which has YHWH there. So, prove to me that
(assuming it is historical) Jesus did pronounce YHWH.
SNIP
> If we accept that paleo-Hebrew characters indicate non-pronunciation,
Aramaic letters should indicate pronunciation, and definitely so the
phonetic transcription IAW. In my view the paleo-Hebrew letters may
argue both for and against pronunciation. Would anybody argue that
whole texts in paleo-Hebrew characters were not read aloud?
You are ridiculing my argument; just offer us good arguments.
<<SNIP>>
Snip
As I wrote before the evidence might be interpreted in different ways. It
appears to me, however, that you do want to prove that YHWH was not
substituted by )ADONAI at the beginning of the C.E. I am not interested to
prove it happened, but I would suggest that you leave both possibilities
open, the facts are not decisive. Now I will leave the discussion.
Kol tuv,
Raymond
From dwashbur AT nyx.net Thu Feb 13 12:01:44 2003Return-Path: <dwashbur AT nyx.net>
Dear Dave,s
See my comments below,
>On Wednesday 12 February 2003 13:42, furuli AT online.no wrote:
>> Dear Michael,
>>
>> Nobody would deny that some persons of the Qumran people, or perhap=
>> all of them used a subatitute for the tetragrammaton. But this doesthe
>> not prove that other groups did the same in B.C.E.
>
>Actually, since it has long been established that many if not most of =
>scrolls were not produced at Qumran but were brought in from other pla=ces,
> it does strongly suggest that the practice was quite widespread.on
>
>> The words you quote from Wurthwein are not found in my 1979-edition
>> of his work. If you quote correctly, this is a blatant example of a
>> misleading statement in a book by a fine scholar. Or rather, before
>> it is verified that Wurthwein himself wrote these words, I am
>> inclined to think that a misinformed translator or editor added the
>> words.
>
>Rolf,
>In the 1979 edition, see page 146. Michael's 1995 edition is a revisi=
> and hence the page numbers are different. The statement in question =is
> opposite the photo of the Habakkuk commentary, which in "our" edition=(I
> also have the 1979) is on p. 147. And I checked the photographic edi=tion
> of the Isaiah scroll, and Wurthwein is right about 3:17. It does rea=d
> `adonai. The scribe has put dots (indicating erasure) under the lett=ers
> of `adonai and written YHWH above the line. I haven't checked all of=the
> references about the converse, but I have no doubt they're accurate:?=20
> 1QIsa reads YHWH for `adonai in those places. What does this tell us=
> It tells us that the scribe was reading along and copying his exempla=r,
> when he came to YHWH. He pronounced it `adonai in his mind and justnd
> automatically wrote it that way, then realized what he had done and
> corrected it to YHWH. In the other places, he saw `adonai and his mi=
> substituted YHWH. This combination of factors indicates that YHWH wa=s
> vocalized as `adonai by this scribe. And it's really doubtful that t=his
> was an isolated practice.
Thank you for clearing up the question regarding the two editions of
Wurthwein. As to the text of the Isaiah scroll, I do not of course
dispute its reading. However, my advice to students and to list
members is this: Do not trust the words of the experts, but look at
their assumptions, and above all, look for data! There is so much
traditional thinking, where conclusions are repeated over and over
again and never are checked.
Then back to Wurthwein. When he wrote his comments on the Isaiah
scroll, just a part of the DSS had been published, so a study of
substitutes for the tetragrammaton would be hampered. In addition, it
was generally believed (and it still is) that the substitution of
YHWH by )DNY went back to the last centuries B.C.E. Wurthwein's
mentioned interpretation of the Isaiah scroll was based on these two
premises. This is of course one possible interpretation, but on the
basis of *all* the DSS which now are published, it is very unlikely.
It is much more likely that the material can be explained as textual
variation. In the 470 verses of the Tanach which are doublettes,
there are at least 58 differences (WAYYIQTOL in one and YIQTOL in the
other vice versa, c.f. Psalm 18 and 2 Samuel 22). There is no
particular system in the differences, so they are simply variants.
The same would be the case in other instances. In order to bolster
Wurthwein's interpretation of the isaiah scroll, one has to do the
following: Study all the examples of )DNY in extra-biblical
manuscripts of the DSS and point out a few examples where )DNY
clearly is a substitute for YHWH (as )L clearly is in many other
manuscripts). I have found none clear examples, and if such are not
present, Wurthwein's interpretation is weak.
So everything boils down to two points:
1) How can we explain the few occurrences of )DNY in the DSS compared
with the extensive use of )L, if )DNY was used as a substitute for
YHWH?
2) Give a few clear examples from the DSS of )DNY used as a
substitute for YHWH.
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