To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Re: Jeremiah 32:20
Date: Thu, 21 Nov 2002 06:42:16 -0600 (CST)
Quoting Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>:
> I would think that the perfect tense as used here in a relative clause
> just means they were done in the past. Why would it have any necessary
> implication of continuance?
Does the (d-hywm later in the verse imply continuance?