In a message dated 11/16/2002 3:55:26 PM Pacific Standard Time, ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk writes:
If Isaiah's hearers would not believe what he told them in simple language,
then they would be told in a foreign language which they did not know: the
Babylonian language.
The view from here...
I see this to hold true to context as well, but then I wonder, how in the world did Paul come up with what his application in 1 Corinthians 14:21? Was that fanciful re-interpretation? Was a perversion from the LXX? Sometimes I am really amazed at the ways that scriptures from the Tanach are applied in the NT.