No, but the point is (forgive me for butting in) that the mention of Iron
is neither a proof of the antiquity of iron or of the lateness of the text.
Both have to be evaluated independantly, and then combined. But if it could
be established that iron was not known (or at least not used) until the 8th
century, this would be proof that at least that part of that redaction of
that particular text did not reach its present form until the 8th century.
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