Assuming m$w+ym are oars (this is the only verse BDB gives for this
interpretation of the word), the first part seems relatively
straightforward, "(from) oaks of Bashan (they) made oars". It's the
next part that makes no sense:
qr$k `$w-$n bt-'$rym
This seems to be "(they) made plank(s) of ivory, daughter of the
Assyrians". NRSV reads bt'$rym instead of bt-'$rym, which makes
much more sense, and reads poetically. But I'm still left with
`$w-$n, apparently "made from ivory (or "tooth")".
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Jer 2:10 is often read though I can't see why to indicate that
ktyym indicates somewhere other than Cyprus (or part thereof).
Has anybody got a good reason why?
ky `bry 'yy ktyym wr'w wqdr $lxw whtbwnnw m'd wr'w hn hyth kz't
For go over to the coasts of Kittim and look, and send to Kedar
and observe with care, and see if there be such as this.
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Also, what am I to make with the variant spelling of masculine
plurals whose singulars end in yod, such as cyym and cym?
Incidentally, the Dead Sea Scrolls are divided between ktyym and
kty'ym, while OT/HB is split 6 /2 for ktym and ktyym. (We are
used to "fuller" spellings in the DSS, here referring to the alef
apparently leading to the pronunciation of both yods.)
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Last, and off-topic, though someone here might be able to help,
as Jerome tends to translate Kittim as either Romans or Italy,
do any of the Old Latin versions of the following verses which
talk about Kittim exist and if so what do they contain?
Gen 10:4, Num 24:24, 1 Chr 1:7, Isa 23:1,12,
Jer 2:10, Eze 27:6 and Dan 11:30
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Thanks,
Ian
Eze 27:6, Jer 2:10 and Kittim,
Ian Hutchesson, 06/05/2002