To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.metalab.unc.edu>
Subject: Re: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?
Date: Sat, 23 Mar 2002 19:20:03 +0100
Paul, having indicated that he accepts that br'$yt ()
can answer the question when and that the first act
of creation is in v.3, says:
>But just because 1:1-2 sets the scene, it does not
>necessarily follow (nor is it even necessary) for those clause to be a
>compound or complex grammatical unit on a level below discourse structure.
Does that mean though you think its not a complex
grammatical unit? That br'$yt cannot govern the
following clause or clauses?
Are the last examples I've given regarding the
"control" of multiple clauses by bywm acceptable to
you? (Isa 30:26b, Obad 11)