Why in 1 Samuel 1:9 is there a reference to the Lord's "temple" (heykal) when
the temple has not been built yet?
The NIV has a text note that says, "That is, tabernacle", but if the
tabernacle was being referred to, why did the author of 1 Samuel not use
"tabernacle" (hamishkan) as is found in Exodus 25:9?
Thank You,
James C. Lindberg
Tempe, AZ
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