Just a few questions. Why are Hebrew words like LaYLaH (night), 'OTH (sign)
and BBaYiTH (house) considered masculine when the word for night has a final
he preceded by a qames, the sign of the feminine ending, and the words
"sign" and "house" both end in a final taw, also typical of a feminine noun
or substantive? I can understand that 'aV the word for "father" is masculine
even though in its plural form it is feminine 'aVOTH, but the 3 nouns I
mentioned can be confusing to a novice in biblical Hebrew. Best regards,
Tony Costa
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Masculine and Feminie Nouns,
Tony Costa, 09/04/2001