From: "Matthew R. Miller" <biblicalscribe AT hotmail.com>
To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
Subject: Semetic Linguistic Theory
Date: Sat, 25 Aug 2001 18:36:12 -0400
Greetings all,
Ancient Semetic languages had no vowels in the written language. As we
know, even modern Hebrew newspapers are vowel-less. Question: Why did the
ancient Semetic/Indo-Asiatic peoples choose to write only consonants
without vowels? Is there any theory as to their reasoning? Were all human
languages this way? When and why were vowels introduced? Thanks, Matthew
Miller
Semetic Linguistic Theory,
Matthew R. Miller, 08/25/2001