if God could go on to
identify Himself as )eHyE (a designation which, to my knowledge, is never
used elsewhere in the Hebrew Bible), it seems like it would have to
develop some sort of serious assertion in the preceding clause.
So what's your take on the second half of v. 14? I could see the first
half possibly being this outburst you suggest, but it seems to me like
something more substantive has to be meant, by the time you get to 14b.
And since 14b seems to build directly off of 14a, that might diminish the
likelihood of your suggestion.
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.