To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Re: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")
Date: Mon, 7 May 2001 06:45:07 -0700
[snip]
> Do you think i have a good argument for distinguishing the usage
> of the first _EHYEH_ from that of the second (as also in LXX)? Do
> you think that the only way to do this in Hebrew was with the
> _)aSHER_ used as a sign of subordination to introduce the
> substantive finite verb? How do you propose to introduce a finite
> verb as a substantive??
In some support of Dan's idea, F. I. Andersen, in "The Sentence in
Biblical Hebrew," consistently refers to 'a$er as the "nominalizer."
If there is some merit to this implicit definition of 'a$er, then Dan's
suggestion becomes quite possible.