To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: waw-conjunctive
Date: Tue, 1 May 2001 01:00:54 -0400
This is a question for Henry Churchyard. Do you have positive
reason to suppose there was a pronunciation difference between
waw-consecutive and waw-conjunctive, we-yqtl and wayyiqtol,
at the time of the Qumran texts? Granted that there could have
been, but from your study do you have positive reasons to
suppose that there was? I sure don't know how one could
answer the question based on Qumran orthography alone.