> The way I see it, the whole problem with this discussion is whether you wish
> to view Isaiah 7:14in its context or use it as a Christological prophecy.
> If the verse is to be viewed as a Christological prophecy, then I have
> nothing to add to this discussion, so please leave me out.
> If the verse is to be viewed in context, which is the only basis for
> philological - and not Christological - discussion, [snip]
I just don't see how this kind of compartmentalization can be done
legitimately. Matthew's use indicates a certain history of
philological interpretation of the word, and it's doubtful that he made
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