> Subject: Gen 2:17: Dying thou shalt die
> From: "Bill Ross" <wross AT farmerstel.com>
> Date: Sat, 19 Aug 2000 16:02:37 -0500
> The literal of Gen 2:17 seems to be: "....dying thou shalt die.."
> which is generally translated "thou shalt surely die" * is this a
> fairly certain translation? could it be taken unidiomatically? *
> does the construct appear elsewhere in Scripture?
See Gesenius-Kautzsch-Cowley sec. 113n (p. 342) for some info and
further citations; this has something in common with the "cognate
accusative" construction (for which see Gesenius-Kautzsch-Cowley
sec. 117p, p. 366-367).