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Came on with a question that I see
oddly coincides with a current b-greek thread from Ephesians.
Is there any justification in Hebrew
grammar for the KJV use of the article with "vine" and "fig
tree" in Zachariah 3:10? They're anarthrous in the MT (and also LXX),
so wondered what the source of the KJV translation was. [Had never noticed
this difference, but saw the NEB translation (which supplies "his,"
German style) quoted in Judith Baldwin's commentary. Checked NIV & RSV
and found they do likewise.] With the article, the line sounds a bit
Messianic, so the difference doesn't seem negligible. (My personal
preference would be that they not supply anything; just leave them
anarthrous.)
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