To: "Biblical Hebrew (E-mail)" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: holem-vav and absence of
Date: Thu, 13 Jul 2000 22:03:27 -0500
Haverim,
Has anyone looked at the presence or absence of the holem-vav as an
indicator of the origin or age of a portion of text?
I'm wondering particularly about Leviticus 1:9,13. Both of those verses
contain the "reyakh nikhoakh" (pleasant odor) formula, but one has the
holem-vav, one does not.