To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: On using the term "Palestine"
Date: Sun, 27 Feb 2000 22:59:03 +1100
> > I think it is only fair to accept the reality that in the 20th century,
> > well
> > before the founding of the State of Israel in 1948, the world at large
> > used
> > the term "Palestine" throughout to refer to the territory in question. So
> > I
> > see no valid reason for offense at this use of the term.
>
> I also have no problem with the term "Palestine" that was in use for this
> area
> from the 2nd to the 20th century.
Herodotus also used it (eg, 1:105). It is a very ancient term which has only
taken on a
different political slant in the late 20th century. I do not find it
offensive or
politically loaded, though I can see how others might. Other suggestions:
- Cisjordan & Transjordan
- Southern Levant
George Athas
Dept of Semitic Studies,
University of Sydney
:::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::
Tel Dan Inscription Website http://members.xoom.com/gathas/teldan.htm
:::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::
< gathas@ mail.usyd.edu.au >
On using the term "Palestine",
George Athas, 02/27/2000