From: Kimmo Huovila <kimmo.huovila AT helsinki.fi>
To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Opposites
Date: Fri, 28 Jan 2000 11:09:53 +0200
Jouon-Muraoka ยง160 k says "Opposite and conflicting notions are less
sharply distinguished than in our languages. Thus &FN") to hate can be
used where we would say not to love..."
Is this rule general in its applicability, or is it very restricted
lexically? Does the rule show some kind of asymmetry (for example not
loving could be expressed with a word whose basic meaning is to hate,
but not hating could not be expressed with a word for loving)?