To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Hebrew Parsing
Date: Tue, 04 Jan 2000 18:06:22 -0600
I was having a discussion with a Hebrew professor the other day. The
question revolved around the first word of Jeremiah 1:4. Can one
legitimately parse it as an "imperfect third masculine singular" or must
it be parsed as a waw consecutive Hebrew preterate?