>You don't find English "whenever" to suggest that they would
>die every time they would eat? "Whenever" is neither
>justified in the Hebrew or "world-knowledge." As for the
>vagueness of the beyom + infinitive construction, how about
>Exo 10:28 ki beyom ro'tka panay tamut? Do you suppose
>Pharoah was being vague?
Howdy Bryan,
I take the phrase in question to be the same sort of thing as "40 days".
Its not a literal 40 days; its a simile.