>
>On a related topic, can anyone explain how Shem can also be used for
>'Semite' !(ben'ey Shem). How did this derivation from Noah's son come to
>mean both Semetic people as well as a term defined as "the name." ? Was
>this some kind of odd mixup with the Hebrew or is it from some other
>greater reasoning?
These really are two different words which merely are spelled alike- just
like the English words "light" = not heavy; and "light" = illumination froma
source such as the sun or a lamp. I dont think anyone would assume there is
some etymololgical link between these two.